1. Read
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given
below:
Assertion (A) : The preamble of the
Constitution of India defines the ideal philosophy of Indian democracy and its
key-concepts are laid down as Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
Reason (R) : A democracy to be
real must be characterised by two features.
Codes:
(1) Both
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both
(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A)
is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A)
is false but (R) is true.
Ans:
(3)
2. Which
of the following statements is wrong to issue Writ of Quo warranto?
(1) The
office in question should be a public office
(2) The
office should be held by an usurper without legal authority
(3) The
petition is barred by res-judicata
(4) It
is necessary for the petitioner to show that he himself a personal injury nor
it is necessary to show that he is seeking redress of a personal grievance
Ans: (3)
3. Match
List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List – I
|
List – II
|
(a)
S.R. Chaudhuri vs. State of
Punjab
(b)
Murali S. Deora vs. Union of
India
(c)
Food Corporation of India vs.
Bharatiya Khadya Nigam Karmachari Sangh
(d)
Javed vs. State of Haryana
|
(i) Ban
on smoking at public places
(ii)
Two extra increments to the
existing employees on earning Higher Qualification
(iii)
Classification based on the number of
children for elected post in Panchayat
(iv)
Non – number cannot be
re-appointed as minister if he fails to get elected within six months.
|
Codes :
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans: (1)
4. Which of the following statements are correct; use the codes and
answer?
Freedom of press includes :
(a) Right to print and publish news
(b) Distribution of printed matter
(c) Criticism of public affairs
(d) Pre-censorship
Codes :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Ans:
(2)
5. During a Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the union
exercises control over state finances through the following measures :
(a) It can issue directions to states to observe certain cannons of
financial propriety
(b) It can ask the states to reserve their money bills for the
consideration of the president
(c) It can direct the states to reduce the salaries and allowances of
all the persons serving in connection with the affairs of the states, including the judges of the
Supreme Court and High Courts.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Ans:
(4)
6. Justice Pasayat held that ‘pardon obtained on the basis of manifest
mistake or fraud can be restricted or cancelled’ in the following cases:
(1) G. Krishta Goud vs. State of A.P.
(2) Maru Ram vs. Union of India
(3) Epuru Sudhakar vs. Govt. Of A.P.
(4) Kehar Singh vs. Union of India
Ans:
(3)
7. Read
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given
below:
Assertion
(A) : The administrative control over
the Subordinate Judiciary in the State lies with the Governor.
Reason (R) : The High Court has a power of Superintendence
overall courts and tribunals throughout the territory in relation to which it
exercises jurisdiction, except military tribunals.
Codes:
(1) Both
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both
(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A)
is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A)
is false but (R) is true.
Ans:
(4)
8. Who
has described Jurisprudence as “The lawyer’s extraversion. It is lawyer’s
examination of the precepts, ideals, and techniques of the law in the light
derived from present knowledge in disciplines other than the law.
(1)
Paton
(2)
Holland
(3)
Austin
(4)
Julius Stone
Ans: (4)
9. Who
may be regarded as the leading contemporary representative of British
Positivism?
(1) Holland
(2) Salmond
(3) Hart
(4) Hohfeld
Ans: (3)
10. Match
List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
List – I
|
List – II
|
(a) Justice
is realised only through good law
(b) Moral
value needs to be included in a definition of positive law
(c) Natural
law with a variable content
(d) A
sophisticated version of Natural Law has been put forward in the tradition of
Aristotle and Aquinas
|
(i)
Jerome Hall
(ii)
John Finnis
(iii)
Morris
(iv)
Stammler
|
Codes :
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv)
(ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: (1)
11. According to whom, whenever a person looked like an owner in
relation to a thing, he had possession of it, unless possession was denied him
by special rules based on practical convenience. The ‘Animus’ element was
simply an intelligent awareness of the situation?
(1) Salmond
(2) Pollok
(3) Ihering
(4) Savigny
Ans: (3)
12. Match
List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
List
– I
|
List – II
|
(a)
Social Solidarity
(b)
Social Utilitarian
(c)
Social Engineering
(d)
Social Contract
|
(i)
Roscoe Pound
(ii)
Grotius
(iii)
Duguit
(iv)
Ihering
|
Codes
:
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
(1)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans:
(4)
13. Match
List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the
codes below :
List – I
|
List – II
|
(a) No one has any other ‘right’ than always to do his duty.
(b) ‘Right’ is power over an object which by means of this right he
subjected to will of the person enjoying the right.
(c) Legal right means, “ A capacity residing in one man of controlling
with the assent and assistance of the state, the acts of the other”.
(d) ‘Right’ is not the interest by itself but it is a mean by which
enjoyment of interest is secured.
|
(i) Gray
(ii)Holland
(iii) Duguit
(iv) Puchta
|
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans:
(1)
14. Who has stated that “as a matter of fact International Law is
neither a myth on the one hand nor a panacea on the other, but just one
institution among others which we can use for the building of a better
international order”?
(1) Prof. Louis Henkin
(2) J.L. Brierly
(3) J.G. Starke
(4) Oppenheim
Ans:
(2)
15. Which one of the following sources of International Law does not
find or mention in Article 38 of the statute of the International Court of
Justice but it has now become a well recognised source?
(1) International conventions
(2) General Principles of Law Recognised by Civilized Nations
(3) Decisions of Judicial or Arbitral Tribunals and Juristic Works
(4) Decisions or Determinations of the Organs of International
Institutions
Ans: (4)
16. Which of the following statement/ statements is/ are correct?
(a) Custom is the oldest and the original source of International as
well as of law in general.
(b) In Barcelona Traction case, the International Court applied the
general rule of subrogation.
(c) In Chorzow factory (Indemnity) case the Permanent Court of Justice
ruled that the International Law is based on justice, equity and good
conscience.
(d) In Nicaragua vs. U.S.A. The World Court has taken the view that the
sources of International law are not hierarchical but are necessarily
complimentary and inter related.
Codes:
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) (a), (b), (c) are correct
(3) (a) and (d) are both correct
(4) (a), (b), (c), and (d) all are correct
Ans:
(3)
17. Which of the following statement/ statements is/ are incorrect?
(a) There are five prominent theories of relationship between
International law and Municipal law
(b) According to Dualism Theory law is a unified branch of knowledge
(c) ‘Monism’ and diametrically opposed to each other
(d) Wright, Kelson and Duguit are prominent exponents of Dualism Theory
Codes:
(1) (b) and (d) are incorrect
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect
(3) Only (d) is incorrect
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are incorrect
Ans:
(1)
18. Match
List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the
codes given below the lists :
List – I
(Provisions)
|
List – II
(Articles of Statue of International Court)
|
(a) Law
applied by the International Court of Justice
(b) Transferred
Jurisdiction
(c) Court
power to allow a state to intervene in case to which it is not a party
(d) Binding
Force of the decisions of the International Court of Justice.
|
(i)
Article 62
(ii)
Article 59
(iii)
Article 38
(iv)
Article 36(5)
|
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: (3)
19. Assertion (A) : When a state wants to delay the de jure
recognition of any state, it may, in the first stage grant de-facto
recognition.
Reason (R) : there is no distinction between ‘de facto’ and ‘de jure’ recognition
for the purpose of giving effect to the Internal Acts of the Recognised
Authority.
Use
the codes below and give the correct answer.
Codes :
(1) Both
(A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both
(A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A)
is correct but (R) is wrong.
(4) (A)
is wrong but (R) is correct.
Ans: (2)
20. Two
persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood when they are
descended from :
(1) A
common ancestor by the same wife
(2) A
common ancestor but by different wives
(3) A
common ancestress by the same husband
(4) A
common ancestress but by different husbands
Ans: (4)
21. Match List – I with List – II
under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer with the help of
codes given below :
List – I
|
List – II
|
(a) Restitution
of Conjugal Rights
(b) Marriageable
Age
(c) Customary
Divorce
(d) Ceremonies
of Marriage
|
(i)
Section – 5
(ii)
Section – 29(2)
(iii)
Section – 9
(iv)
Section – 7
|
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans:
(3)
22. In which of the following cases, a child could be a Hindu? Answer
with the help of codes:
(a) Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was brought up as a Hindu
(b) Only one parent is a Hindu and the child was not brought up as a
Hindu
(c) If after the birth of child, father converts to non – Hindu
religion
(d) Both the parents are Hindu
Codes:
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (c) and (d) only
Ans: (1)
23. Under the provisions of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 the decree of Judicial Separation:
(a) Dissolve the marriage.
(b) Does not dissolve the marriage bond but suspends marital right and
obligations during the subsistence of the decree.
(c) The parties continue to be husband and wife but not obligated to
live together and neither party is free to marry.
(d) If after a decree of judicial separation the parties have not
resumed cohabitation for a period of one year, either party may seek divorce.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (a) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans:
(3)
24. Read
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the
help of codes given below:
Assertion (A) : The
Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 makes Muslim Law applicable
expressly to all Muslims.
Reason (R) : The Muslim
Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 has abrogated the customs and
restored to Muslims their own personal law in almost all cases.
Codes:
(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Ans:
(1)
25. Observance of ‘Iddat’ is
necessary:
(1) Where Cohabitation is lawful i.e. consummation of marriage.
(2) Where Cohabitation is lawful i.e. illicit intercourse and the
pregnancy follows the illicit intercourse.
(3) In both (1) and (2)
(4) Only in (1) and not in (2)
Ans:
(3)
26. Modern sources of Hindu Law are:
(1) Legislation, Precedents and Digests
(2) Legislation, Precedents, Equity etc.
(3) Precedents, Smritis, Legislation
(4) Legislation, customs, Precedents and Commentaries
Ans:
(2)
27. Match
List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
List – I
(Heads of Public Policy)
|
List – II
(Case – Law)
|
(a) Trading
with enemy
(b) Trafficking
in public offices
(c) Interference
with administration of justice
(d) Marriage
brokage contracts
|
(i)
Girdhari Singh vs. Neeladhar
Singh
(ii)
Espostiv vs. Bowden
(iii)
Shivsaran Lal vs. Keshav Prasad
(iv)
Nand Kishor vs. Kunj Behari Lal
|
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans:
(2)
28. Read
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and
answer using codes given below:
Assertion
(A) : Compensation is recoverable for any loss or
damage arising unnaturally in the unusual course of things from breach of
contract, or which the parties did not know at the time of the contract as
likely to result from the breach.
Reason
(R) : Because Section - 73 of the Indian Contract
Act stipulated so.
Codes:
(1) Both
(A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A)
(2) Both
(A) and (R) are wrong
(3) (A)
is right, but (R) is wrong
(4) (R)
is right, but (A) is wrong
Ans:
(2)
29. Doctrine
of frustration was laid down for the first time in:
(1) Krell
vs. Henry
(2) Taylor vs. Caldwell
(3) Paradine
vs. Jane
(4) Cricklewood
Property and Investment Trust Ltd. Vs. Leighton’s Investment Trust Ltd.
Ans:
(2)
30. Which
of the following statements is correct?
(1) A
contract is voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force
in India.
(2) A
mistake as to law not in force in India has the same effect as a mistake of
fact.
(3) A
contract is voidable merely because it was caused by one of the parties to it
being under a mistake as to a matter of fact.
(4) Where
both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential
to the agreement, the agreement is not void.
Ans:
(2)
31. An
agreement without consideration is valid, unless:
(1) It
is in writing and registered
(2) Is
a promise to compensate for something done
(3) It
is made by two minors
(4) Is
a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law
Ans: (3)
32. A
proposal is revoked:
(1) By
the notice of revocation of the proposal
(2) By
the lapse of a reasonable time if the time is prescribed in the proposal
(3) By
acceptance of a condition precedent to acceptance
(4) By
the death or insanity of the proposer, if the fact of his death or insanity
comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance
Ans:
(4)
33. In
order to bring an action for tort, the plaintiff has to prove that:
(1) There
has been a legal damage caused to him
(2) Violation
of a legal right not vested in him
(3) There
has been no legal damage caused to him
(4) Violation
of no legal right and has not resulted in harm to him
Ans: (1)
34. In
which case it was held by the Supreme Court that state was not liable on the
ground that police were acting in discharge of statutory powers and power of
the police in keeping the property in the police Malkhana was a
sovereign power?
(1)
Ramawati Kaur vs. State Bihar
(2)
Radha Aggarwal vs. State of U.P.
(3)
Kasturi Lal vs. State of U.P.
(4)
State of Bihar vs. Rameshwar Prasad
Ans: (3)
35. Match the List – I
with List – II and give the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
(Name of defence)
|
List – II
(Name of Case – Law)
|
(a) Act
of State
(b) Consent
(c) Act
of God
(d) Statutory
authority
|
(i)
Burron vs. Denman
(ii)
Hail vs. Brookkand and Auto
Racing Club
(iii)
Metropolitan Asylum Board vs.
Hills
(iv)
Nicholas vs. Marsland
|
Codes :
(a)(b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii)
(i) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (i) (iv)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Ans:
(2)
36. In
which of the following cases, is the occupier of a house liable for
‘negligence’?
(1) Keeping
a dog, which may bite trespassers
(2) Fixing
broken glass pieces on the top of a wall to prevent trespassers
(3) Setting
spring guns in the premises to prevent trespassers
(4) Constructing
a compound wall to prevent trespassers
Ans: (3)
37. Read
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the
help of codes given below:
Assertion
(A) : Mental element is an essential element in
most of the torts.
Reason
(R) : State of mind of the defendant is not
relevant to ascertain his liability in all branches of law of torts.
Codes:
(1) Both
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both
(A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both
(A) and (R) are true.
(4) Both
(A) and (R) are wrong.
Ans: (4)
38. Which
one of the following is not an exception to the rule of volenti non fit
injuria?
(1) Surgeon
amputates a limb of a patient to save his life
(2) Injury
is caused while play-fighting with naked swords at a religion function
(3) Injury
is caused while doing lawful acts under
contract
(4) Injury
is caused to player in football match
Ans: (4)
39. Which
of the facts do not include within the principle of joint liability?
(1) The
actuated act needs not to be a crime or when it was foisted.
(2) The
act done in a pre-arranged plan between more than one person.
(3) Mere
participation in some manner in the act constituting the offence.
(4) An
act done in furtherance of an intention to cause harm.
Ans: (1)
40. ‘
Imposing punishment implies that someone should be legally authorised to impose
it upon the offender’. In which of the following cases a private person can
impose such punishment?
(1) Where
the law recognises moral blame worthiness.
(2) Where
there is justification for punishing any person provided the offender had
broken a law.
(3) Where
one can establish the connection between punishment and crime.
(4) Where
the act falls within a retroactive penal legislation.
Ans: (2)
41. The
Apex court has shown as to how compromise is not a free choice of the rape
survivor but a hidden secret of law where justice is reduced to a bargain
between the victim’s kin, state authorities and the accused. Identify the case
law:
(1) Ravinder
vs. State of M.P.
(2) Shreya
Singhal vs. Union of India
(3) Sanskar
Marathe vs. State of Maharashtra
(4) Khursheed
Ahmed Khan vs. State of U.P.
Ans:
(1)
42. There
is a specific provision that the intention to screen the offender must be
primary and the role object of the accused. This provision is provided in
------------------.
(1) Section
202
(2) Section
201
(3) Section
199
(4) Section
203
Ans:
(2)
43. Which
of the following offences fall under causing hurt as well as assault?
(1) Digging
a pit in the public path
(2) Flinging
boiling water over a person
(3) Mixing
deleterious poison in a liquid and placing the same on another table
(4) Pulling
hair of a woman
Ans:
(2)
44. There
must be dishonest intention which should co-exist while taking a thing for an
offence of theft. In which of the following situations it will not amount to
theft?
(1) Taking
a stick from the person to beat him
(2) Taking
a sugar packet from another person in good faith while his own packet was at
the shop.
(3) A
senior student snatching some books from a junior student with promise to
return on the next day.
(4) Not
finding the helmet hanged on a bike, a person takes away a similar helmet from
the adjacent bike, but afterwards repenting on his fault returns the same to
the owner.
Ans:
(1)
45. The
Constitution of Works Committee under the Industrial Dispute Act is to:
(1) Remove
causes of friction between the employer and the workmen in the day to day
waking of the establishment.
(2) Remove
causes of friction between the employer and the workmen relating to wage
settlement.
(3) Remove
causes of friction between the employer and the workmen relating to standing
orders.
(4) Remove
causes of friction between the employer and the workmen relating to
implementation of award.
Ans: (1)
46. Under
the Industrial Dispute Act, a reference to an industrial tribunal will be:
(1) Only
where both the parties to an Industrial Dispute apply for such reference
(2) Only
where the appropriate government considers it expedient to do so.
(3) Only
where both the parties to an Industrial Dispute apply for such reference and
also where the appropriate government considers it expedient to do so.
(4) Only
where the affected party to the dispute apply for such reference.
Ans: (3)
47. To
which statement machinery can the central government refer the dispute under
Rule 81-A?
(1) Conciliation
(2) Arbitration
(3) Adjudication
(4) Supreme
Court
Ans: (3)
48. A
settlement under the Industrial Dispute Act arrived at in the course of
conciliation proceeding, between the employer and a recognised majority union
will be binding on:
(1) Parties
to the settlement
(2) All
workmen of the establishment
(3) All
workmen of a recognised majority union
(4) All
workmen of a registered Trade Union
Ans:
(2)
49. The
permission applied for by the government shall be deemed to have been granted
if the appropriate government does not communicate the order under I.D. Act,
granting or refusing to grant permission within a period of :
(1) 15
days
(2) 30
days
(3) 60
days
(4) 90
days
Ans:
(2)
50. “The
right to strike may be controlled or restricted by appropriate industrial
legislation the validity of such legislation would have to be tested not with
reference to the criteria laid down in clause (4) of Article 19 but by totally
different considerations” , was observed by the Supreme Court in:
(1) Syndicate
Bank vs. Umesh Nayak
(2) All
India Bank Employees Association vs. I.T.
(3) Management
of Churakulam Tea Estate (P) Ltd. Vs. The workmen and another
(4) Ramnagar
cane and sugar Co. Vs. Jatin Chalin
Ans:
(2)
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