December 2012
1. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added
to the Constitution by
(A) The Constitution First Amendment
Act.
(B) The Constitution Second Amendment
Act
(C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment
Act.
(D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment
Act.
Ans: (A)
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for
the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per
(A) Article 40
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 44
(D) Article 48
Ans: (C)
3. In India sovereignty lies with
(A) The Constitution
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Parliament
(D) The People
Ans: (D)
4. The Supreme Court of India formulated
the doctrine of eclipse in
(A) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of
M.P.
(B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax
Commissioner.
(C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar
(D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India
Ans: (A)
5. The satisfaction of the President means
the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction,
held in
(A) Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
(B) U.N. Rao Vs Indira Gandhi
(C) Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of
Punjab
(D) Sardar Lal Vs Union Government
Ans: (A)
6. The Concurrent List was described as a
‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to
legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by
(A) Basu, D.D.
(B) Dicey, A.V.
(C) Pyle, M.V.
(D) Ambedkar, B.
Ans: (C)
7. Article 360 has been invoked
(A) only one time.
(B) two times.
(C) three times.
(D) never invoked
Ans: (D)
8. “Jurisprudence is concerned primarily
with the effects of law upon society and only to a lesser extent with questions
about the social determination of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Eugen Ehrlich
(C) Emile Durkheim
(D) Max Weber
Ans: (A)
9. “True law is that which has right
reason in agreement with nature” was propagated by
(A) Cicero
(B) Hart
(C) Grotius
(D) Salmond
Ans: (C)
10. Match List - I with List - II
and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List - I
|
List - II
|
I. Privilege
II. Duty
III. Power
IV. Absolute Duty
|
a. Gives content to the claim of a person
b. Freedom from claim of another
c. Have no correlative claim
according to Austin
d. Ability of a person to change
legal relations.
|
Codes :
(A) I-a II-
b III-d IV-c
(B) I-b II-a III-d IV-c
(C) I-a II-b III-c IV-d
(D) I-b II-a III-c IV-d
Ans: (B)
11. ‘X’ a servant finds a bag at the basement
of the shop. He hands it over to ‘Y’ the owner of the shop, who asks him to
place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of
(A) ‘X’ because he was the finder.
(B) ‘Y’ because he was the owner of the
shop.
(C) ‘X’ because he has kept it in the almirah.
(D) ‘Y’ because in him there was union
of corpus and animus.
Ans: (D)
12. Which one of the following jurists emphasised
that “We cannot understand what a thing is unless we study what it does” ?
(A) Salmond
(B) Roscoe Pound
(C) Kelsen
(D) Austin
Ans: (A)
13. Who defines ‘ownership as planary control
over an object’ ?
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) Holland
(D) Savigny
Ans: (C)
14. Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected
interest.
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to
constitute right.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
15. Assertion (A) : International Law Commission has
initiated studies and prepared draft codes on diverse fields in international law.
Reason (R) : International Law Commission was
established under General Assembly Resolution No. 174 (11) adopted on 21
November 1947 with an object to promote, progressively develop and codify international
law.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false.
(D) Both (A) and
(R) are false.
Ans: (A)
16. Match List - I with List - II.
List – I
Declaration/
Treaty/Convention
|
List – II
Year of
Adoption
|
a. Universal Declaration of Human
Rights
b. International Convention on Civil
and Political Rights
c. Convention on the Rights of the
Child
d. Convention on the Rights of
Persons with Disabilities
|
i. 1948
ii. 1966
iii. 2006
iv. 1999
|
Codes :
a b
c d
(A)
i ii iv iii
(B)
ii i iv iii
(C)
iv iii ii i
(D)
iii ii iv i
Ans: (A)
17. Jus Cogens means
(A) Peremptory norm of international law.
(B) Norm of international law.
(C) Peremptory norm which does not permit
derogation.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (C)
18. Which one of the following is primary source
of international law ?
(A) Decisions of International Court of
Justice.
(B) Resolutions of U.N. General Assembly.
(C) General Principles of law recognized
by Civilized Nations.
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
19. Which one of the following is not a permanent
member of the U.N. Security Council ?
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) China
Ans: (C)
20. “Recognition operates retroactively not
to invalidate the acts of a former government, but to validate the acts of a de facto government which has become the new de jure government.” has been held by the court
in the case of :
(A) Civil Air Transport Inc. Vs Central
Air Transport Corporation.
(B) A.M. Luther Vs Sagar & Co.
(C) The Arantzazu Mendi
(D) Gdynia Ameryka Linie Vs Boguslawski.
Ans: (B)
21. Rules relating to sapinda relationship are
based on
(A) Principle of Endogamy
(B) Principle of Exogamy
(C) Principle of Polygamy
(D) Principle of Monogamy
Ans: (B)
22. On the ground of barrenness or sterility,
marriage can be
(A) voidable
(B) void
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
Ans: (D)
23. Breakdown theory of divorce is
reflected in
(A) Section 13 (1) of Hindu Marriage Act,
1955.
(B) Section 13 (2) of Hindu Marriage Act,
1955.
(C) Section 13 (IA) of Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955.
(D) Section 13 (B) of Hindu Marriage
Act, 1955.
Ans: (C)
24. Match List-I with List-II
and indicate the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I
|
List-II
|
a. Ashok Hura Vs Rupa Hura case
b. Bipin Chandra Vs Prabhavati
c. Sarla Mudugal Vs Union of India
d. T. Sareetha Vs State of A.P.
|
i. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
ii. Uniform Civil Code
iii. Dessertion
iv. Divorce by Mutual Consent.
|
Codes :
a
b c d
(A)
i ii iii iv
(B)
iv iii ii i
(C)
ii iii i iv
(D)
iv iii i ii
Ans: (B)
25. Arrange the grounds of divorce in the order
in which they appear in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Use the codes given below
:
(I) Mutual consent
(II) Break down
(III) Fault
(IV) Customary
Codes :
(A) III II I IV
(B) II III IV I
(C) I II III IV
(D) IV III I II
Ans: (D)
26. The petition for divorce by mutual consent
may be presented if the spouses have been living separately for a period of
(A) One year
(B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) None of the above
Ans: (A)
27. An offer and an acceptance to it must be
in the
(A) same time
(B) same place
(C) same sense
(D) none of above
Ans: (C)
28. Which of the following statements are true
?
(i) Past consideration is no consideration
under Indian and English Law.
(ii) Past consideration is no consideration
under Indian Law.
(iii) Past consideration is no consideration
under English Law.
(iv) Past consideration is made in past.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) and (i)
Ans: (C)
29. Assertion (A) : When subject matter of a contract is
destroyed, the contract is frustrated.
Reason (R) : Frustration of a contract frustrates a
party to the contract.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (B)
30. Arrange the following concepts in which
they appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Invitation to offer
(ii) Damage
(iii) Offer
(iv) Damages
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(B) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Ans: (A)
31. Match an item in List – I with an item in
List – II, using code given below :
List – I
|
List – II
|
i. Capacity
ii. Damages
iii. Remedy
iv. Public policy
|
1. Breach
2. Unruly horse
3. Compensation
4. Sound mind
|
Codes :
i ii
iii iv
(A) 4
3 2 1
(B) 1
2 4 3
(C) 3
4 1 2
(D) 4
3 1 2
Ans: (D)
32. Which one of the following pairs does not
match ?
(A) Novation of contract
(B) Agreement in restraint of legal
proceedings
(C) Tender of performance
(D) Unlawful object and consideration
|
- Section 62
- Section 29
- Section 38
- Section 23
|
Ans: (B)
33. Which one of the following is not an example
of vicarious liability?
(A) Liability of the principal for the tort
of his agent.
(B) Liability of partners for each others’
tort.
(C) Liability of the master for the
tort of his servant.
(D) Liability of the parents for the tort
of the children.
Ans: (D)
34. Match List – I and List – II
, select the correct answer by using codes given below :
List – I
|
List – II
|
a. Injuria sine damnum
b. Damnum sine injuria
c. Strict liability
d. Defence of consent
|
1. Reylands Vs Fletcher
2. Gloucester’s Case
3. Volenti non fit injuria
4. Ashby Vs White
|
Codes :
a
b c d
(A) 4
2 1 3
(B)
2 4 1 3
(C) 1
2 3 4
(D)
4 3
2 1
Ans: (A)
35. Rule of absolute liability was propounded
by
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Justice Sodhi
(C) Justice Ahmadi
(D) Justice Kuldeep Singh
Ans: (A)
36. Which one of the defence to strict liability
is based on the maxim, volenti non fit injuria ?
(A) Consent of the plaintiff
(B) Act of God
(C) Act of Third Party
(D) Statutory Authority
Ans: (A)
37. Mental condition of the wrong-doer at
the time of wrong doing is
(A) relevant in all torts.
(B) relevant to torts based on fault.
(C) relevant in torts based on strict liability.
(D) not relevant in tortious liability.
Ans: (B)
38. Consider the following set of legal propositions
:
(1) A person can claim damages for all
wrongs he has suffered.
(2) A person can claim damages for wrongs
only if they are caused intentionally.
(3) A person can claim damages for a
wrong if it is caused by infringement of the legal right.
(4) A person can claim damages even if
he has suffered no loss.
Of these above propositions which are correct
?
(A) (1) and (2)
(B) (3) and (4)
(C) (1) and (3)
(D) (2) and (4)
Ans: (B)
39. Which of the meaning given for the maxim
“Actus me invite factus non est mens actus” is correct ?
(A) Merely a voluntary act by me will
not be a crime with a criminal intention.
(B) An act done by me against my will
is not my act.
(C) Neither I nor my person can be held
liable for an act done under compulsion.
(D) All of them.
Ans: (B)
40. The general principles as to protection
of an accused is based on :
(i) Autrefois acquit and Autrefois convict.
(ii) Reasonable doubt as to presumption
of innocence.
(iii) Natural Justice.
(iv) Conviction can not be based without
proving the guilt even if it was admitted.
Which statement is correct ?
(A) (i) is correct.
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are
correct.
Ans: (D)
41. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words
:
The distinctive features of riot and unlawful assembly
are an activity which is accompanied by ____
(A) use of force and violence.
(B) causing alarm.
(C) violence on a common purpose.
(D) all of them.
Ans: (D)
42. The offence of __________ homicide
supposes knowledge of likelihood of causing death.
(A) unlawful
(B) abnormal
(C) culpable
(D) all types of
Ans: (C)
43. The expression ‘Seduced’ used in
Section 366 A of Indian Penal Code means to _________ a woman to submit to
illicit intercourse at any time.
(A) use of force by stress
(B) deceitfully induce
(C) willfully influence
(D) none of them
Ans: (B)
44. Preparation consists in devising or
arranging means necessary for the commission of the offence. Such attempt is
not punishable because
(i) the motive was harmless.
(ii) impossibility to reach wrongful
end.
(iii) does not affect the security of
any person.
(iv) it remained without culmination.
The reasoned answer is
(A) Only (i) is correct.
(B) The most probability is (i) and
(ii).
(C) There is quite likelihood of (i)
and (iii).
(D) All the reasons (i), (ii), (iii)
and (iv) have to be examined.
Ans: (D)
45. No person employed in a public utility
service shall go on strike
(I) without giving notice of strike to
employer.
(II) within 14 days of giving such
notice.
(III) after expiry of date specified in
notice for strike.
(IV) within 7 days of conclusion of
conciliation proceeding.
Codes :
(A) I and IV
(B) I and III
(C) I and II
(D) II and III
Ans: (C)
46. There can be lay-off for
(A) One day
(B) More than one day
(C) Maximum seven days
(D) Any period, even less than one day
Ans: (D)
47. In which of the following cases the
court reiterated the well-known legal position that even a temporary worker can
claim retrenchment compensation, if he is covered by the provisions of Section
25 F of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(A) Tatanagar Foundary Co. Vs Their
Workmen.
(B) Management of Willcox Buckwell
(India) Ltd. Vs Jagannath.
(C) Barsi Light Railway Co. Ltd. Vs
Joglekar.
(D) Modern Stores Vs Krishandas.
Ans: (B)
48. Which one of the following statement is
true ?
(A) All Government departments are
industries.
(B) No Government department can be
industry.
(C) Government department carrying on
business or trade may be industry.
(D) Government department carrying on
only sovereign function may be industry.
Ans: (C)
49. According to Section 9 A of the Trade
Union Act, 1926 minimum requirement about membership of a trade union is
(A) Seven
(B) Ten percent or one hundred of the
workmen.
(C) Ten percent or one hundred of the
workmen, whichever is less.
(D) Ten percent or one hundred of the
workmen, whichever is less, subject to minimum seven.
Ans: (D)
50. To be a member of trade union, a person
must attain the age of
(A) 18 years
(B) 16 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 21 years
Ans: (A)
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