(CBSE) UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper II LAW
June 2012
1. The Supreme
Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the
Constitution of India
(A) Berubari case
(B) A. K. Gopalan case
(C) Balaji Case
(D) Minerva Mill’s case
Ans: (A)
2. Article
16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in
favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
(A) 75th Amendment
to the Constitution of India.
(B) 76th Amendment
to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment
to the Constitution of India.
(D) 78th Amendment
to the Constitution of India.
Ans: (C)
3. The
protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of
the country is
(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
(D) Both Directive Principle of State Policy and Fundamental Duty
of a Citizen
Ans: (D)
4. Originally
the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and
(A) Seven other judges
(B) Twelve other judges
(C) Thirteen other judges
(D) Fifteen other judges
Ans: (A)
5. A
resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for
such period not exceeding
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) Twelve months
Ans: (D)
6. The
President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid
in the State for maximum period of
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
Ans: (C)
7. The power
of the Parliament to a mend the Constitution of India is a constituent power
laid down in Article 368 by
(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
(B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: (A)
8. ‘Jurisprudence
is as big as law and bigger’. who said this ?
(A) Austin
(B) Lloyds
(C) Lewellyn
(D) Holland
Ans: (C)
9. “Rousseau
is a Janus like figure in the history of national law” – who said this ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Locke
(D) Barker
Ans: (D)
10. Match
List-I (Jurist) with List-II (Assumption) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List – I
|
List – II
|
I. Acquinars
II. Pound
III. Kelsen
IV. Savigny
|
(a)
Jural postulates
(b) Spirit of people
(c) Ground norm
(d) Reason and will in law
|
Codes :
I II III IV
(A) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(B) (d) (b) (c)
(a)
(C) (b) (d) (a)
(c)
(D) (d) (b)
(a) (c)
Ans: (A)
11. Match
List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists
List – I
|
List – II
|
I. Law in a changing society
II. Human Law and Human Justice
III. The morality of law
IV. Ancient law
|
(a) Fuller
(b) Friedmann
(c) Stone
(d) Main
|
Codes :
I II
III IV
(A) (a) (c) (b)
(d)
(B) (c) (a) (b)
(d)
(C) (b) (a) (d)
(c)
(D) (a) (b) (d) (c)
Ans: (B)
12. Which one
of the following schools of Jurisprudence considers that “a reasoned scale of
values can be discovered as a basis for legal development” ?
(A) Sociological
(B) Historical
(C) Analytical
(D) Philosophical
Ans: (D)
13. According
to Salmond, the correlative of liberty is
(A) Duty
(B) No rights
(C) Subjection
(D) Disabilities
Ans: (B)
14. Assertion (A) : Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) : Custom represents common
consciousness of people.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not a correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (D)
15. Assertion (A) : International Court of Justice has power to decide cases on the basis
of equity
Reason (R) : Equity is one of the General Principles of Law recognized by
Civilized Nations.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct
explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but
(R) is true.
Ans: (A)
16. Match
List-I with List-II :
List – I
(Subject Matter)
|
List – II
(Cases)
|
(a) International Custom
(b) Res Judicata
(c) Legal status of General Assembly Resolutions on
decolonization and self determination
(d) Human Rights
|
(i) S. S. Lotus (France
v. Turkey) PCIJ, Series A, No. 10
(ii) U. N. Administrative
Tribunal case, International Law Reports, 1954, P. 310
(iii) Western Sahara Case, Advisory Opinion, ICJ Rep., 1975, P.
12
(iv) Lawless Case, American Journal of International Law, Vol.
56, 1962, P. 187
|
Codes :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iv)
(B) (ii) (i) (iii)
(iv)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i)
(iv)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(i)
Ans: (A)
17. U. N.
Commission on Human Rights has been discarded and replaced by
(A) Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Committee
(B) Amnesty International
(C) Human Rights Committee
(D) Human Rights Council
Ans: (D)
18. Which of
the following is not a primary source of International Law ?
(A) International Treaty
(B) Decision of International Court of Justice
(C) International Custom
(D) General Principle of Law recognized by Civilized Nations
Ans: (B)
19. Which of
the following cases relates to retroactive nature of the act of recognition of
government ?
(A) Aksionairnoye Obschestro A. M. Luthar V.
James Sagor & Co., (1921) 3 K.B. P. 532
(B) Trendtex Trading Corporation V. Central
Bank of Nigeria, (1977) B. P. 529
(C) Central Air Transport Inc. V. Central Air
Transport Corporation, (1953) A. C. P. 70
(D) Nicaragua V.
U.S.A., ICJ Rep., 1984, P. 169.
Ans: (C)
20. In a case
concerning the legality of the Threat or
use of Nuclear Weapons, the International Court of Justice gave advisory
opinion at the request of :
(A) U.N. Security Council
(B) U. N. General Assembly
(C) World Health Organization
(D) United Nations Educational and Cultural Organization
Ans: (B)
21. Which is
not the modern source of Hindu Law ?
(A) Equity, Justice and Good Conscience
(B) Precedent
(C) Sruti
(D) Legislation
Ans: (C)
22. Consider
the following propositions and give the correct answer
I. A void marriage remains valid until a
decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
II. A void marriage is never a valid marriage
and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
III. A voidable marriage is regarded as a
valid marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent
court.
Codes :
(A) I, II and III are correct
(B) I and II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I and III are correct
Ans: (C)
23. Assertion (A) : Break down of marriage as such is not a ground for Divorce.
Reason (R) : It may result into an easy way of dissolution of marriage and
shall result into instability in the society.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is wrong.
Ans: (A)
24. Dastane Vs.
Dastane is a case decided by the Supreme Court relating to :
(A) Adultery
(B) Dessertion
(C) Cruelty
(D) None of the above
Ans: (C)
25. Marriages
of all persons who are citizens of India belonging to various religions should
by made compulsory registrable in their respective States where the marriage is
solemnised. This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of :
(A) Githa Hariharn Vs. RBI
(B) Seema Vs. Ashwani Kumar
(C) John Vallamathom Vs. Union of India
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
26. Assertion (A) : The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 brought changes like prohibition of
polygamy and prigamy and permission for inter-caste marriages.
Reason (R) : The changes were brought
under social pressure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
27. An
agreement made by mistake is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Immoral
Ans: (A)
28. Which of
the following statements are true ?
(i) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority.
(ii) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority.
(iii) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties
to the contract.
(iv) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract.
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (B)
29. Assertion (A) : Damages must be related to damage.
Reason (R) : Damage is damaging and
damages are compensating.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of
(A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of
(A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (A)
30. Arrange the
following concepts in sequence in which they appeared.
Use the codes given below :
(i) Offer by x to y
(ii) Undue influence of x over y
(iii) Demand of damages by y from x
(iv) Acceptance of the offer by y.
Codes :
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Ans: (C)
31. Which one
of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) In India, consideration must follow…..from promisee only.
(B) In India, consideration must follow……from only promisor or
only promisee.
(C) In India, consideration must follow……from promisor or any
other person.
(D) In India, consideration must follow…..promisee or any other
person.
Ans: (D)
32. Assertion (A) : Collateral transactions to wagering agreements are valid.
Reason (R) : Only wagering agreements are declared void under Section 30 of the
Indian Contract Act.
Codes :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of
(A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of
(A).
Ans: (D)
33. Liability
in torts depends on
(A) quantum of damages suffered
(B) involvement of intention
(C) infringement of legal right
(D) effect of public interest
Ans: (C)
34. Which of
the following ingredients are essential to make master liable for the acts of
the servant ?
(1) Tort was committed by the servant.
(2) Tort was committed in the course of employment.
(3) Express authority was given by master.
(4) Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of tort.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2
Ans: (D)
35. Which of
the following is an essential constituent of negligence ?
(1) Defendant was under or legal duty to exercise due care
(2) This duty was owed to plantiff
(3) Defendant committed breach of such duty
(4) That the breach of such duty was the direct and proximate cause
of the damage alleged.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (B)
36. Which one
of the following is not a good defence in suits for damages or negligence ?
(A) Contributory Negligence
(B) Express contract with plantiff
(C) Express contract where statute prohibits
(D) Voluntary assumptions of risk
Ans: (C)
37. Match List
–I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List – I
|
List – II
|
(a) Rayland Vs Fletcher
(b) Donoghue V Stevenson
(c) Gludster Grammer School Case
(d) Rose Vs. Ford
|
1. Compensation for pain
and suffering
2. Loss caused by Competition in business
3. Strict liability
4. Liability of Minor for tests
5. Liability for negligence
|
Codes :
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2
3 4
(B) 2 3
4 5
(C) 3 5
2 1
(D) 3 4
2 1
Ans: (C)
38. Assertion (A) : Tort is a civil wrong redressible by an action for unliquidated
damages only.
Reason (R) : Law does not provide compensation
in the nature of liquidated damages.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: (C)
39. ‘Z’ while
walking along a deserted road at night during winter saw a just born baby
abandoned on a side. For a moment be realized that he could save the baby
without appreciable trouble, expense or loss of his time and also felt that if
the baby is left over unprotected, it might die. But he did nothing and went
away.
‘P’ another person also passed through that road and saw the baby and
acted just like ‘Z’ and went away. Next morning the infant baby died of
exposure.
Decide who is responsible ?
(A) Only ‘Z’ who saw first
(B) ‘P’ for omitting to be compassionate
(C) Both ‘Z’ and ‘P’ for negligence
(D) Neither ‘Z’ nor ‘P’ is responsible
Ans: (D)
40. Decide on
whom criminal liability can be fixed on the following :
The accused ‘P’ caught hold of the victim and exhorted on the main
accused ‘L’ to strike the victim; upon which he inflicted a kirpan wound and
consequently the victim died.
Assertions :
(i) ‘P’ is liable for punishment.
(ii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both liable for common intention.
(iii) ‘P’ and ‘L’ are both responsible for victim death for having
common object.
(iv) ‘P’ is not liable for any offence.
Reasons :
(A) (i) is quite possible
(B) (ii) is reasonable
(C) (iii) is as occasion demands
(D) (iv) is most accurate
Ans: (B)
41. ‘M’ a
quack, an uneducated in matters of surgery, had performed an operation on a man
for internal piles with the help of ordinary Knife, unlike previous occasions,
for which the man died due to haemorrhage. Decide on ‘M’’s liability.
(i) ‘M’ is a recognised quack and hence not liable.
(ii) ‘M’’s profession is not legally acceptable hence liable.
(iii) ‘M’ is not liable because the man consented for such operation.
(iv) ‘M’ is not liable because it was a post – operational
syndrome
The probable answer is :
(A) Statement (i) is correct
(B) Statement (ii) is correct
(C) Statement (iii) is correct
(D) Statement (iii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: (B)
42. Fill in the
gap.
‘P’ in support of a just claim of ‘Q’ has stated against ‘Z’, for
a sum of Rupees one thousand and falsely sweared on a trial that he heard ‘Z’ admitted
as to the just claim of ‘Q’.
The court decides that it was an affirmation of ________.
(A) Statement of truth
(B) False evidence
(C) Making a declaration
(D) None of them
Ans: (B)
43. One of the
essentials of holding a person responsible for dowry death is
(A) subjected to harassment by peer groups.
(B) subjected to harassment for dowry
(C) subjected to harassment under suspicious circumstances
(D) All of them
Ans: (B)
44. Fill in the gap :
An act of grievous hurt is always inferred through enormity to
________ and not merely a slight more than a frolic.
(A) Murder
(B) Bodily injury
(C) Amputation
(D) All of them
Ans: (A)
45. Assertion (A) : Before Bangalore Water Supply case educational institutions were
excluded from the definition of an industry.
Reason (R) : Main purpose of such institutions is to impart education, and not
to run business or trade.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Ans: (A)
46. An individual
dispute becomes industrial dispute when it is taken up by
(A) Union only.
(B) Union or substantial number of workmen.
(C) Continuous support of union.
(D) Subsequent support of union.
Ans: (B)
47. Which of
the following statements are true ?
I. All employees are workmen.
II. All employees are not workmen.
III. All workmen are employees.
IV. All managerial staff are workmen.
Codes :
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) III and IV
(D) I and III
Ans: (B)
48. In which of
the following cases the Supreme Court held that medical representative is not
workman ?
(A) Standard Vacuum Oil Company V. Commissioner of Labour
(B) Anand Bazar Patrika V. Its Workmen
(C) Workmen V. Greaves Cotton & Co.
(D) J & J Dechane V. State of Kerala
Ans: (D)
49. Which one
of the following statement is true ?
(A) The general funds of a registered trade
union shall not be spent on the payment of salaries.
(B) A registered Trade union may constitute a
separate fund for the promotion of the civic and political interests.
(C) No appeal lies against the order of
refusal of the Registrar to register a Trade union.
(D) Every registered Trade Union shall not be
a body corporate.
Ans: (B)
50. Match List
– I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List – I
(Subject)
|
List – II
(Provisions of Trade Union Act, 1926)
|
(i) Appointment of Registrar
(ii) Appeal
(iii) Amalgamation of Trade Unions
(iv) Cancellation of registration
|
1.
Section 24
2. Section 10
3. Section 3
4. Section 11
|
Codes :
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) 2 4
1 3
(B) 4 1
3 2
(C) 3 4
1 2
(D) 1
3 2 1
Ans: (C)
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